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Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
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Which two are causes of output queue drops on FastEthernet0/0? (Choose two.)
A. an oversubscribed input service policy on FastEthernet0/0
B. a duplex mismatch on FastEthernet0/0
C. a bad cable connected to FastEthernet0/0
D. an oversubscribed output service policy on FastEthernet0/0
E. The router trying to send more than 100 Mb/s out of FastEthernet0/0
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Answer: D,E
Output drops are caused by a congested interface. For example, the traffic rate on the outgoing interface cannot accept all packets that should be sent out, or a service policy is applied that is oversubscribed. The ultimate solution to resolve the problem is to increase the line speed. However, there are ways to prevent, decrease, or control output drops when you do not want to increase the line speed. You can prevent output drops only if output drops are a consequence of short bursts of data. If output drops are caused by a constant high-rate flow, you cannot prevent the drops. However, you can control them.
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)  Which two mechanisms provide Cisco IOS XE Software with control plane and data plane separation? (Choose two.)
A. Forwarding and Feature Manager
B. Forwarding Engine Driver
C. Forwarding Performance Management
D. Forwarding Information Base
Answer: A,B
Control Plane and Data Plane Separation
IOS XE introduces an opportunity to enable teams to now build drivers for new Data Plane ASICs outside the IOS instance and have them program to a set of standard APIs which in turn enforces Control Plane and Data Plane processing separation. IOS XE accomplishes Control Plane / Data Plane separation through the introduction of the Forwarding and Feature Manager (FFM) and its standard interface to the Forwarding Engine Driver (FED). FFM provides a set of APIs to Control Plane processes. In turn, the FFM programs the Data Plane via the FED and maintains forwarding state for the system. The FED is the instantiation of the hardware driver for the Data Plane and is provided by the platform.
Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
What is Nagle’s algorithm used for?
A. To increase the latency
B. To calculate the best path in distance vector routing protocols
C. To calculate the best path in link state routing protocols
D. To resolve issues caused by poorly implemented TCP flow control.
Answer: D
Silly window syndrome is a problem in computer networking caused by poorly implemented TCP flow control. A serious problem can arise in the sliding window operation when the sending application program creates data slowly, the receiving application program consumes data slowly, or both. If a server with this problem is unable to process all incoming data, it requests that its clients reduce the amount of data they send at a time (the window setting on a TCP packet). If the server continues to be unable to process all incoming data, the window becomes smaller and smaller, sometimes to the point that the data transmitted is smaller than the packet header, making data transmission extremely inefficient. The name of this problem is due to the window size shrinking to a “silly” value. When there is no synchronization between the sender and receiver regarding capacity of the flow of data or the size of the packet, the window syndrome problem is created. When the silly window syndrome is created by the sender, Nagle’s algorithm is used. Nagle’s solution requires that the sender sends the first segment even if it is a small one, then that it waits until an ACK is received or a maximum sized segment (MSS) is accumulated.
Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)  Which technology can create a filter for an embedded packet capture?
A. Control plane policing
B. Access lists
D. Traffic shaping
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Answer: B
A filter can be applied to limit the capture to desired traffic. Define an Access Control List (ACL) within config mode and apply the filter to the buffer:
ip access-list extended BUF-FILTER
permit ip host host
permit ip host host
monitor capture buffer BUF filter access-list BUF-FILTER

Question No : 16 – (Topic 1) Which statement about MSS is true?
A. It is negotiated between sender and receiver.
B. It is sent in all TCP packets.
C. It is 20 bytes lower than MTU by default.
D. It is sent in SYN packets.
E. It is 28 bytes lower than MTU by default.
Answer: D
The maximum segment size (MSS) is a parameter of the Options field of the TCP header that specifies the largest amount of data, specified in octets, that a computer or communications device can receive in a single TCP segment. It does not count the TCP header or the IP header. The IP datagram containing a TCP segment may be self contained within a single packet, or it may be reconstructed from several fragmented pieces; either way, the MSS limit applies to the total amount of data contained in the final, reconstructed TCP segment. The default TCP Maximum Segment Size is 536. Where a host wishes to set the maximum segment size to a value other than the default, the maximum segment size is specified as a TCP option, initially in the TCP SYN packet during the TCP handshake. The value cannot be changed after the connection is established.
Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)
What is a cause for unicast flooding?
A. Unicast flooding occurs when multicast traffic arrives on a Layer 2 switch that has directly connected multicast receivers.
B. When PIM snooping is not enabled, unicast flooding occurs on the switch that interconnects the PIM-enabled routers.
C. A man-in-the-middle attack can cause the ARP cache of an end host to have the wrong MAC address. Instead of having the MAC address of the default gateway, it has a MAC address of the man-in-the-middle. This causes all traffic to be unicast flooded through the man-in-the-middle, which can then sniff all packets.
D. Forwarding table overflow prevents new MAC addresses from being learned, and packets destined to those MAC addresses are flooded until space becomes available in the forwarding table.
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Answer: D
Causes of Flooding
The very cause of flooding is that destination MAC address of the packet is not in the L2 forwarding table of the switch. In this case the packet will be flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN (except the port it was received on). Below case studies display most common reasons for destination MAC address not being known to the switch.
Cause 1: Asymmetric Routing
Large amounts of flooded traffic might saturate low-bandwidth links causing network performance issues or complete connectivity outage to devices connected across such low-bandwidth links
Cause 2: Spanning-Tree Protocol Topology Changes
Another common issue caused by flooding is Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) Topology Change Notification (TCN). TCN is designed to correct forwarding tables after the forwarding topology has changed. This is necessary to avoid a connectivity outage, as after a topology change some destinations previously accessible via particular ports might become accessible via different ports. TCN operates by shortening the forwarding table aging time, such that if the address is not relearned, it will age out and flooding will occur
Cause 3: Forwarding Table Overflow
Another possible cause of flooding can be overflow of the switch forwarding table. In this case, new addresses cannot be learned and packets destined to such addresses are flooded until some space becomes available in the forwarding table. New addresses will then be learned. This is possible but rare, since most modern switches have large enough forwarding tables to accommodate MAC addresses for most designs.

Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)
Which option describes a limitation of Embedded Packet Capture?
A. It can capture data only on physical interfaces and subinterfaces.
B. It can store only packet data.
C. It can capture multicast packets only on ingress.
D. It can capture multicast packets only on egress.
Answer: C
Restrictions for Embedded Packet Capture
In Cisco IOS Release 12.2(33)SRE, EPC is supported only on 7200 platform. EPC only captures multicast packets on ingress and does not capture the replicated packets on egress. Currently, the capture file can only be exported off the device; for example, TFTP or FTP servers and local disk.
Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)
What is the most efficient way to confirm whether microbursts of traffic are occurring?
A. Monitor the output traffic rate using the show interface command.
B. Monitor the output traffic rate using the show controllers command.
C. Check the CPU utilization of the router.
D. Sniff the traffic and plot the packet rate over time.
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Answer: D
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. In order to troubleshoot microbursts, you need a packet sniffer that can capture traffic over
a long period of time and allow you to analyze it in the form of a graph which displays the saturation points (packet rate during microbursts versus total available bandwidth). You can eventually trace it to the source causing the bursts (e.g. stock trading applications).

Which cloud computing mechanism is used to maintain synchronicity between on-premise and cloud-based IT resources? Select the correct answer.
A. automated scaling listener
B. failover system
C. pay-for-use monitor
D. None of the above.
Answer: D
Black box testing refers to a technique where testers are provided with visibility into an IT resource’s implementation architecture. Select the correct answer.
A. complete
B. periodic
C. no
D. None of the above.
400-101 exam 
Answer: C
Cloud balancing cannot be achieved by redundantly deploying IT resources in advance. Redundant instances of IT resources must be dynamically generated on-demand, at runtime. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Cloud Service A resides on Virtual Server A and Cloud Service B resides on Virtual Server B. Both virtual servers are hosted by the same physical server and the trust boundaries of Cloud Services A and B overlap. A cloud service consumer successfully uses Cloud Service A to gain access to the underlying physical server. This enables the cloud service consumer to attack Cloud Service B, which negatively affects the cloud service consumers of Cloud Service B. This is an example of which cloud security threat? Select the correct answer.
A. denial of service
B. insufficient authorization
C. weak authorization
D. None of the above.
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Answer: D
Which of the following are primary areas of testing a cloud service in relation to information published in its service level agreement? Select the correct answer.
A. availability
B. reliability
C. performance
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
The required parts of a SOAP message are the envelope document and the header and body sections. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
400-101 pdf 
Answer: B

400-101 dumps
We provide the Cisco 400-101 dumps exam preparation materials in two different methods, practice test software and pdf format. “CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam”, also known as 400-101 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. The pdf format ensures portability across a number of devices to allow for preparation on the go. Pass4itsure Cisco 400-101 dumps exam questions answers are updated (399 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 400-101 dumps is CCIE Routing and Switching. Pass4itsure offers CCIE Routing and SwitCHING dumps CCIE Routing and Switching practice test and interactive PDF.

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